ext_36709 ([identity profile] steepholm.livejournal.com) wrote in [personal profile] steepholm 2010-07-25 04:57 pm (UTC)

Oh, and it just occurs to me that the question of consent must have been at least involved in the definition of rape rather earlier than you're suggesting - otherwise why would Shakespeare have called his poem 'The Rape of Lucrece'?
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