The 's in English is indeed a little ambiguous. It doesn't always imply authorship or even ownership: sometimes it's merely used in apposition ("Dublin's fair city"); or to imply a rendition or performance ("Olivier's Coriolanus"), for example. But of course, the genitive in German doesn't always imply possession either, does it? (Does it?)
Can you shed any light on the fact that the vast majority of English editions of these tales refer to them as "Grimm's" - which implies that there's only one Grimm involved? That's the real puzzle to me. You will see from the poll results that barely anybody on my friends list preferred this usage.
I've always understood that the 'mare' of nightmare came from a word meaning 'hag' or 'demon' (mara?), rather than story - referring to the succubi/incubi (according to taste) who so inconsiderately lie on one during the hours of darkness. Cf. "hag-rid" for one who has had nightmares (a word picked up by J. K. Rowling of course).
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The 's in English is indeed a little ambiguous. It doesn't always imply authorship or even ownership: sometimes it's merely used in apposition ("Dublin's fair city"); or to imply a rendition or performance ("Olivier's Coriolanus"), for example. But of course, the genitive in German doesn't always imply possession either, does it? (Does it?)
Can you shed any light on the fact that the vast majority of English editions of these tales refer to them as "Grimm's" - which implies that there's only one Grimm involved? That's the real puzzle to me. You will see from the poll results that barely anybody on my friends list preferred this usage.
I've always understood that the 'mare' of nightmare came from a word meaning 'hag' or 'demon' (mara?), rather than story - referring to the succubi/incubi (according to taste) who so inconsiderately lie on one during the hours of darkness. Cf. "hag-rid" for one who has had nightmares (a word picked up by J. K. Rowling of course).