James the VI and Blank - a regnal number question

[steepholm]

As I understand it, it's not usual practice for the first monarch to use a particular name to take a regnal number. Elizabeth Tudor was crowned Queen Elizabeth, not Queen Elizabeth I (pace certain historical novels), and didn't get her number until 1952, when another Elizabeth appeared with whom she might conceivably be confused.

So, what about James VI of Scotland? When he became King of England in 1603, he was the first English king to be called James, so ordinarily would not have had a number. But he was already known as James VI, and presumably there would have been some impulse to distinguish him in his king-of-England capacity. One way of doing that would have been to call him James I of England, so that he would be known as James VI and I, just as he is today. On the other hand, to call a living monarch 'the First' might be thought to allude indelicately to the fact that he would one day die.

So, how was James styled after 1603 (and indeed up to 1685, when the accession of his grandson rendered the question moot), when people wanted to refer to him as reigning over both kingdoms? "James VI and I"? "James VI, also King of England"? "James VI and [null]"?

I begin to see why he was so keen on establishing Britain as a political entity: I'm guessing his motives were nomenclatural.

Comments

[kalypso]

Officially, he's Iacobvs Dei Gracia Angliae Scotiae Franciae et Hiberniae Rex Fidei Defensor, or (as in the preface to the Authorised Version) The Most High and Mighty Prince James, by the grace of god, King of Great Britain, France, and Ireland, Defender of the Faith, &c. The combination of kingdoms would be sufficient to identify him uniquely. In practice, I imagine everyone just called him "the King".

[steepholm]

In practice, I imagine everyone just called him "the King".

Apart, of course, from Steenie, to whom he was "dear dad".

[calimac.livejournal.com]

Although you are entirely correct that James's English predecessor was known purely as "Queen Elizabeth" until 1952 when she was retroactively numbered I, there have been monarchs of other countries who have numbered themselves as the First during their own reigns.

This habit is most common among parvenu megalomaniacs like Bokassa I or Zog I, but the Emperor Paul of Russia is still usually referred to as Paul I even though there was never a Paul II.

However, and on the other hand! I do not believe it was ever formal practice during his reign to refer to "James the VI and I". In Scotland he was King James VI. In England he was King James, no number necessary. Just like today in England the Queen is Anglican and in Scotland she's Presbyterian.

I've looked at reproductions of Stuart coins of the English realm. James I's say IACOBVS. Charles I's say CAROLVS. Charles II's say CAROLVS II. James II's say IACOBVS II. I think that settles it.

[steepholm.livejournal.com]

This habit is most common among parvenu megalomaniacs like Bokassa I or Zog I.

Perhaps they saw it more in the spirit of a personalized registration plate?

I think that settles it.

Thank you! I'm convinced.

[wolfinthewood.livejournal.com]

Here's a bit more evidence that in England he was just styled James: in Michael Dalton's Country Justice, a handbook for JPs published in 1618, Dalton cites Jacobean statutes without giving the monarch a number: thus, a law passed in the first regnal year of James's reign is cited as 1.Jac.9. By contrast, a law passed in the reign of Edward VI is cited as 5.Ed.6.25.

[steepholm.livejournal.com]

That's persuasive. I just wondered how people referred to him when they wanted to encompass both kingships at the same time. But probably that never happened in a context where it wasn't entirely clear which King James was meant.

[calimac.livejournal.com]

I don't think there was ever a need to do so at the time, certainly not in a legal or formal context, in which the King of England and the King of Scotland were two separate capacities, like Pooh-Bah's. (Or the Lord Chancellor's. Let us be thankful that we are persons of no capacity whatever.)

It even seems to me that the form "James VI and I" to refer to him in general is mostly of very recent usage, within the last few decades, possibly inspired by the rise of Scottish nationalism. Previously, at least in the context of an English-oriented history, books called him just "James I", and it was something of a trivia point to remember that he'd previously been James VI.

[steepholm.livejournal.com]

I suspect you're right: I've certainly seen the VI and I combination more frequently in recent years, probably for the reason you give. Also, post-Union, monarchs were 'normalized' to English numbers - so that the current queen, for example, is Elizabeth II in both England and Scotland, even though the Scots never had a previous one; and the Scots had a William I, II and IV, but no William III! (Now there's a trivia question.)

[sheenaghpugh]

I'd lay bets that the Scots referred to him as James VI but the English only as James. What foreigners did, God knows, but probably they saw him essentially as king of England, sadly.

[steepholm.livejournal.com]

James believed the king had two bodies. Perhaps in fact he had spare for every realm?

[chilperic.livejournal.com]

I can tell you one English monarch who styled himself The First. It puzzled me for years (though not enough to persuade me to do some basic research) how the first Norman king of England to take an Anglo-Saxon name got away with reusing the name of earlier Anglo-Saxon kings. But I discovered relatively recently that the full title of Edward I was "King Edward, the first of that name since the Conquest", thus quietly remembering King Edward the Elder, King Edward the Martyr and King Edward the Confessor.

[steepholm.livejournal.com]

Thank you! That's bothered me too on occasion, especially regarding Edward the Confessor, whom they could hardly dismiss as illegitimate since William's claim depended on being Edward's rightful successor. It still doesn't answer the question of why Edward Plantagenet decided to reset the numbering in the first place - after all, taking an English name was presumably a sop to the English in some way, so why spoil it? - but I intend to use "since the Conquest" in future whenever I refer to any post-1066 Edward. (Off the top of my head, I don't think any of the other names of the Anglo-Saxon kings of England have been adopted since - although I'd love it if Prince Charles, who apparently dislikes his name, took on Æthelred to commemorate the millennium of that noble king's reign.)

[cmcmck.livejournal.com]

Jamie Sext is now usually styled James VI & I but in his own time simply James in England, James VI in Scotland.

[wolfinthewood.livejournal.com]

So far the earliest work I can find that styles him "James VI and I" dates from 1711. This is The martial atchievements of the Scots nation by Patrick Abercromby. The reference is in Vol 1, p. 14. Here it is on Google Books.

According to DNB, Abercromby was a Jacobite, and fervently opposed to the Union.

[steepholm.livejournal.com]

Well that makes a lot of sense. He might well have felt that the Scottish numbering was threatened by the Union (as indeed it was), and wished to make a point of it.

Evidence!

[nightspore.livejournal.com]

To wit, this excerpt from the Proclamation of Accession of 24 March 1603:

We therefore the Lords Spirituall and Temporall of this Realme, being here assembled, united, and assisted with those of her late Majesties Privie Counsell, and with great numbers of other principall Gentlemen of quality in the Kingdome, with the Lorde Maior, Aldermen, and Citizens of London, and a multitude of other good Subjects and Commons of this Realme, thirsting now after nothing so much as to make it knowen to all persons, who it is that by Law, by Lineall succession, and undoubted Right is now become the onely Soveraigne Lord and King of these Imperiall Crownes (to the intent that by vertue of his Power, Wisedome and Godly Courage, all things may be provided for, and executed, which may prevent or resist either forreine attempts, or popular disorder, tending to the breach of the present Peace, or to the prejudice of his Majesties future quiet) doe now hereby with one full Voyce and Consent of Tongue and Heart, publish and proclaime, That the High and Mightie Prince, James the sixt King of Scotland, is now by the death of our late Soveraigne, Queene of England of famous memorie, become also our Onely, Lawfull, Lineall and Rightfull Liege Lord, James the first, King of England, France and Ireland, defender of the faith, to whome as to our onely just Prince, adorned (besides his undoubted Right) with all the rarest gifts of mind and bodie, to the infinite comfort of all his people and Subjects that shall live under him, we doe acknowledge all faith and constant obedience, with all heartie and humble affections, both during our naturall lives for our selves, and in the behalfe of our posteritie.

That would actually make sense of Macbeth's "edge of doom." As though the point is that sons will succeed, as they do Banquo, and James is both the originator of a line of English Jameses while a link in the line of Scottish ones. Calling himself James the first is therefore an interesting polemical move.

Re: Evidence!

[steepholm.livejournal.com]

Bingo! That's a great find, and right at the beginning of his English reign, too. Thanks for digging it out!

Re: Evidence!

[nightspore.livejournal.com]

And notice that George I doesn't get the same treatment. He's only George. Must be true of Popes and Emperors too. Fascinating - thanks for raising the question.

Re: Evidence!

[steepholm.livejournal.com]

Ditto with Charles in 1625. I think you're right that James had a polemical motive. Notice that later in his proclamation it refers to him as "James the first King of all the said Kingdomes", which fits with his emphasis on Britain as a single political unit (c.f. Jonson's Masque of Beauty, as well as the crack of doom speech). It's understandable, really, since he was the first person in history to reign over the entire island - and clearly fancied himself as the First King of Britain, not just another Stuart.

Re: Evidence!

[wolfinthewood.livejournal.com]

Excellent evidence, and very interesting source material. Thank you.

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